Answers can be found in the following text:
Psychological Testing: A Practical Introduction
Thomas P. Hogan, 2015
The Edwards Personal Preference Schedule, a
_____ inventory, is an example of a _____ test.
a. specific domain; theory-based
b. specific domain;
c. comprehensive; criterion-keyed
d. comprehensive; theory-based
2. The multitrait-multimethod
matrix is most useful in illustrating ______.
a. predictive and concurrent
b. content and construct validity
c. convergent and discriminant
d. content and criterion-related
3. The point on a test that
separates passing from failing, or one level of proficiency from another, is
called a _____ score.
4. Cross-referencing norms between
WIAT and the Wechsler intelligence scales provides the basis for making _____
c. motivation-self concept
5. The main reason for some
movement toward the use of briefer tests of intelligence seems to be ______.
a. the greater reliability of the
b. the greater validity of the
c. demands for increased
efficiency in the health care field
d. interest in getting
correlations with personality
6. What is the basic definition of
a z-score? (M is the mean, S is the standard deviation and X is a score for the
a. (X - M)/SD
b. (M - X)/S
c. S/(X - M)
d. (X – M) + S
7. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
related mainly to what area of testing?
a. learning disabilities
b. educational achievement
c. personality, especially
8. In which of the methods of
measuring attitudes does a panel of judges sort the items in terms of how
favorably they express an attitude?
9. Which is NOT one of the major
tests in the ACT Assessment?
10. Role-playing is an application
of which behavioral assessment technique?
a. behavioral interviewing
b. cognitive-behavioral assessment
c. analogue behavioral assessment
11. The text notes that the
insanity plea in court cases is ______.
a. made often and is frequently
b. made often but is rarely
c. requires the person be
committed to a mental institution
d. made infrequently but when made
is usually successful
12. The practice of “subgroup
norming” was adopted by some employers to reduce or eliminate claims of ______.
a. adverse impact
b. learning disabilities
c. sex harassment
d. age discrimination
13. Which type of content found in
individually administered intelligence tests is usually NOT found in group
administered mental ability tests?
b. short-term memory
c. arithmetic reasoning
d. verbal relations
14. Dr. N, a school psychologist,
wishes to use a behavior rating scale for Tom, a 5th grade student. Who is
likely to answer the questions on the scale?
a. Dr. N
c. Tom’s mom
d. Tom’s classmates
15. A principal concern of authors
creating the “new-type” achievement tests was to make tests that were ______.
a. less expensive
c. more reliable
d. less dependent on reading
16. Objective personality tests
utilize the _____ item format to enable objective scoring.
a. Objective personality tests
utilize the _____ item format to enable objective scoring.
17. What does research show about
the degree of use of consequential validity by test authors and publishers?
a. It is basically ignored.
b. It is used with achievement
tests but not with other tests.
c. It is used with all types of
tests except achievement tests.
d. It is widely used with all
types of tests.
18. Each of the following
projective tests can be classified as human figure drawings EXCEPT:
a. House-Tree-Person Test (HTP)
b. Draw-A-Person Test DAP)
c. Kinetic Family Drawing Test
d. Draw-A-Figure Test (DAFT)
19. Which of these specialties
within psychology has been most important in the development of the field of
a. developmental psychology
b. social psychology
c. physiological psychology
d. clinical psychology
20. Which law emphasizes that
parents have a right to see their child’s test results from school testing
b. Civil Rights Act
c. Americans with Disabilities Act
21. In the RIASEC hexagon, the “R”
stands for _____.
22. According to the textbook, the
Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery possesses _____ utility beyond
confirming the presence of brain damage.
23. If you want a test that has
the best discrimination at the lower end of the distribution of scores on the
test, you should select items with ______.
a. high p-values
b. moderate p-values
c. low p-values
d. a mixture of very high and very
24. For most purposes the most
important score coming from the ASVAB is the ______.
25. The Directory of Unpublished
Experimental Mental Measures includes tests that typically appear in ______.
a. journal articles
b. publishers’ catalogs
c. Internet sources
d. newspaper reports
26. Which is NOT one of the
special areas of concern for forensic application of tests identified in the
a. child custody
b. prediction of future violence
c. spousal abuse
d. white-collar crime
27. Which of the following is NOT
a major advantage of selected-response items?
a. scoring can occur very rapidly
b. can complete more items in a
given amount of time
c. scoring requires little
d. opportunity to observe
28. What correction is applied
after determining the correlation between two halves of a test in order to
express the reliability of a full-length test?
29. The process of weighing all
the evidence and judging the relevance of existing studies to a specific anticipated
use is called ______.
a. construct irrelevant variance
b. validity generalization
c. construct underrepresentation
d. criterion contamination
30. Which of these is a quick,
self-report survey of a wide array of dysfunctional states?
31. For predicting success in most
school and job settings, in comparison with traditional intelligence tests,
tests intended as culture-fair tests have ______.
a. higher validity
b. lower validity
c. about the same validity
d. higher validity at younger ages
but lower validity at older ages
32. What test publishers refer to
as “test user qualifications” would more accurately be called ______.
a. test purchaser qualifications
b. test publisher qualifications
c. test specifications
d. test technical standards
33. Two types of changes in
standardized administration of a test for persons with disabilities are called
accommodation and modification. For which are the norms for the test presumed
to be applicable?
a. accommodation only
b. modification only
c. both accommodation and
d. neither accommodation nor
34. When applying location codes
in the Comprehensive System for scoring the Rorschach, what symbol indicates
reference to an unusual detail?
35. Two common characteristics of
comprehensive personality inventories are a _____ number of items and _____
a. large; no
b. large; one hour
c. small; no
d. small; one hour
36. What generalization did the
text offer about the degree of validity of the major career interest
a. Their validity, as defined by ultimate
career choice, is very high.
b. Their validity, as defined by
ultimate career choice, is respectable.
c. Their validity, as defined by
ultimate career choice, is quite low.
d. Their validity, as defined by ultimate
career choice, has not been studied very much.
37. Which statement best describes
the textbook’s conclusion about the influence of Piaget’s theory on practical measurement
a. The theory has had enormous influence.
b. The theory has had little
c. The theory once had great
influence but no longer does.
d. The theory’s influence has
decreased just recently.
38. The process of developing the
list of knowledge and skills required by a job is often called ______.
a. job specification
b. job content
c. job selection
d. job analysis
39. The General Occupational Theme
(GOT) scores on the Strong are based on ______.
a. the RIASEC hexagon
b. Primary Mental Abilities
c. MMPI codes
d. Dictionary of Occupational
40. The scales on the original
MMPI were identified by _____.
a. numbers (e.g., 1, 2, 3, …)
b. letters (e.g., A, B, C, …)
c. names of clinical groups
d. names of the scales’ authors
41. Which is true about the
similarity of subtests on successive editions of WAIS?
a. All of the subtests are the
b. Most of the subtests are the
c. A few of the subtests are the
d. None of the subtests are the
42. Which is a major difference
between items in memory scales, such as the WMS, and intelligence scales, such
a. The memory scales use items
that have no conceptual difficulty.
b. The memory scales use items
that re untimed.
c. The memory scales use items
that are entirely visual.
d. The memory scales use items
that are entirely verbal.
43. Which of the following is a
drawback to developmental norms?
a. They are applicable only to
variables that show clear developmental patterns.
b. They have uncontrolled standard
c. none of the above
d. both a and b
44. The textbook suggests that use
of the TAT may be declining due to the TAT’s ______.
a. lack of a systematic scoring
b. greater cost than the Rorschach
c. lack of cultural sensitivity
d. sex bias
45. The concept of working memory
fits under which type of theory of intelligence?
a. primary mental ability
b. uni-factor theory
c. developmental model
d. information processing
46. Thurstone is mainly identified
with which theory of intelligence?
b. hierarchical model
c. developmental model
d. primary mental abilities
47. Which is the most widely
referenced structured clinical interview?
c. STAI 9
48. Using the techniques of
analysis of variance, _____ attempts to apportion several sources of
unreliability in a single study.
a. item response theory
b. classical test theory
c. generalizability theory
d. standard score theory
49. The text identifies a number
of “preliminary design” issues to be considered when building a test? Which of
these is NOT one of them?
b. number of scores
c. item format
d. defining the purpose
50. We interpret someone’s performance
on a test in terms of how other people have performed on the test. Other
people’s performance is the basis for the test’s ______.
51. The use of ______ is NOT a
common approach to criterion-related validity.
a. alternate forms of same test
b. some external criterion
c. group contrasts
d. some other valid test
52. What effect does managed care
seem to be having on the use of projective techniques?
a. Managed care is leading to
decrease in projective use.
b. Managed care is leading to
increase in projective use.
c. Managed care is leading to
increase in some projectives and decrease in other projectives.
d. It’s having no effect.
53. Which phrase signals an
a. ought to do
b. must do
c. will do
d. already did
54. Which of these categories is
NOT identified by the textbook as a broad category of achievement tests?
a. achievement test batteries
b. nonverbal test batteries c
. psychoeducational batteries
d. teacher-made tests
55. In the three-parameter IRT
model, the lower asymptote of the ICC is often called the:
c. guessing parameter
d. difficulty parameter
56. In information processing
models of intelligence, functions such as monitoring and evaluating are called
a. mental b. executive c. service
57. The usual method for using
several tests to predict status on a criterion is ______.
a. factor analysis b. partial
correlation c. multiple correlation d. coefficient alpha
58. The most general definition of
a learning disability is a significant discrepancy between a child’s ______.
a. level of intelligence and
b. verbal and recognition memory
c. level of intelligence and
d. memory and level of achievement
59. The inability to sound out
words and making substitutions of visually similar words when reading are
characteristics of ______.
a. dysphonetic dyslexia
b. dyseidetic dyslexia
60. Which is NOT one of the areas
identified as an influence of computers on testing?
a. score reporting
b. test administration
c. cost of testing
d. statistical processing
61. What is the time limit for the
Wonderlic Personnel Test?
a. 3 minutes
b. 12 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 3 hours
62. Validity information for what
the text calls “brief tests of intelligence” tends to concentrate on ______.
a. factor analysis
b. content validity
c. showing a high correlation with
lengthier measures of intelligence
d. showing a low correlation with
lengthier measures of intelligence
63. The 25th percentile indicates
the point in a distribution _____ which 25% of the cases fall.
64. This reliability coefficient
is obtained by administering the same test to the same individuals on two
a. inter-scorer reliability
b. alternate form reliability
c. test-retest reliability
d. none of the above
65. The two principal uses for
projective techniques include _____ and _____.
a. research; assessment of
b. research; supporting psychoanalytic
c. assessment of group dynamics;
d. assessment of individual cases;
66. From an entry in TIP you
should be able to determine all of the following EXCEPT:
a. the test’s publisher
b. the test’s author
c. the test’s year of publication
d. the test’s degree of
67. A person’s test score with all
sources of unreliability removed is called the _____ score.
68. The NEO PI purports to measure
what have been called the _____ personality dimensions.
a. Big Ten
b. Three Factor
c. Four Factor
d. Big Five
69. Standard scores on the
Wechsler Individual Achievement Test have a mean of _____ and a standard
deviation of _____.
a. 115; 10 b. 115; 15 c. 100; 10
d. 100; 15
70. What was the main approach to
personality test development used in construction of the original MMPI?
a. content b. criterion-keying c.
factor analysis d. theory-driven
71. The WISC was designed to be
a(n) __________ of the WAIS.
a. upward extension
b. nonverbal form
c. downward extension
d. alternate form
72. Individual intelligence tests
typically cover a wide range of abilities but they involve using only some
items with each examinee. The items to be used in a particular case are usually
selected by ______.
a. tables of random numbers
b. computer-adaptive models
c. use of start- and stop-rules
d. examinee interests
73. What is the technical term for
d. intrauterine 7
74. Deficits in the ability to
express or comprehend written or spoken communication as a result of brain injury
are called ___.
75. In the Atkins v. Virginia
case, what unusual source of information was cited by the Supreme Court as defining
a national consensus?
a. legal briefs from all 50 states
b. meta-analysis of law school
c. a summary of statements by law
d. public opinion polls
76. Educational and Psychological
Measurement, Psychometrika, and Personnel Psychology are all examples of what
type of source of information about tests?
a. textbooks on testing
b. electronic listings
d. comprehensive listings
77. Projective techniques
typically use what type of response format?
78. Someone tells you that the raw
scores on a test have been converted to a score system with M = 50 and SD = 10.
This sounds like a set of ________.
d. standard scores
79. College achievement batteries
are typically used _____ elementary and secondary school achievement batteries.
a. slightly more frequently than
b. approximately the same as
c. less frequently than
d. much more frequently than
80. Neuropsychological tests are
designed primarily to yield information about functioning of the ______.
a. peripheral nervous system
b. central nervous system
c. physiological systems
81. Which of the following types
of derived scores are NOT provided by the Stanford Achievement Test? 81.
c. grade equivalents
d. percentile rank
82. The MMPI-2 Restructured Form
(RF) provides three higher-order scales. These scales are based on _____.
a. criterion-keying the items
based on new clinical groups
b. combinations of the “critical
c. a more sophisticated T-score
d. factor analysis of the clinical
83. The key terms in the classical
test theory approach are all of the following EXCEPT:
a. reliability score (R)
b. observed score (O)
c. true score (T)
d. error score (E)
84. What is the popular name for a
freely available pool of personality items oriented toward the Big Five
85. A considerable variety of
studies show that the average IQ of entire nations is increasing. This
phenomenon is popularly named the ________ effect.
86. Which method of measuring
attitudes does the text identify as the most widely used method?
a. Thurstone method
b. Likert method
c. Guttman method
d. Allport method
87. What does the concept of
“replicability” deal with in Guttman scaling?
a. consistency of patterns of
b. content validity of the overall
c. factor analysis of the group’s
d. face validity of the items
88. The MMPI has been utilized to
detect malingering, or _____.
b. persistent symptoms
c. deliberate faking
89. Which of the following should
NOT be used to determine the quality of a particular test?
a. other test users
b. publisher’s catalogs
c. test reviews
d. book about the test
90. Which word best describes the
textbook’s conclusion about the validity of human figure drawings?
91. What is the effect of
“constant errors” on test reliability?
a. They increase reliability.
b. They decrease reliability.
c. They have no effect on
d. They increase reliability for
low scores but decrease it for high scores.
92. One of the sources of
information about tests is “books about single tests.” What is the major
advantage of this source of information?
a. easy electronic access
b. in-depth coverage of a single
c. several parallel reviews of a
d. up-to-date information about
scoring services for the test
93. What important property sets
the ratio scale apart from the interval scale?
a. The ratio scale has a true zero point.
b. The ratio scale has accurate
c. The ratio scale has equally
d. The ratio scale has
94. The content method for
developing objective personality tests develops items based on ______.
a. straightforward understanding
of the construct to be measured
b. empirical verification of the
validity of potential items
c. their ability to discriminate
between two well-defined groups of examinees
d. their identification of
dimensions underlying numerous observations
95. Patients with _____ do not
attend to objects in their neglected field of vision.
a. visual neglect
b. spatial insufficiency
c. spatial neglect d
. visual insufficiency
96. The Raven’s test uses what
type of item?
d. grid-in type
97. The most immediate result
obtained from a test is the ______.
a. raw score
d. standard score
98. Which is NOT one of the major
trends the textbook identifies for the period “And Now: 2000-Present”?
a. a great increase in the number
b. influence of managed care
c. online administration and
reporting of tests
d. changing definitions of what a
99. Which is true about the
relative number of tests covered by MMY and Test Critiques?
a. MMY covers more
b. MMY covers fewer
c. They cover an equal number
d. MMY used to cover more but now
100. Which of the following is the
first phase in item analysis?
a. item selection
b. statistical analysis
c. item discrimination
d. item tryout