Answers can be found in the following text:

Psychological Testing: A Practical Introduction
Thomas P. Hogan, 2015
Wiley

ISBN.13: 978-1-118-55412-8

1.     The Edwards Personal Preference Schedule, a _____ inventory, is an example of a _____ test.

a. specific domain; theory-based

b. specific domain; criterion-keyed

c. comprehensive; criterion-keyed

d. comprehensive; theory-based

2. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is most useful in illustrating ______.

a. predictive and concurrent validity

b. content and construct validity

c. convergent and discriminant validity

d. content and criterion-related validity

3. The point on a test that separates passing from failing, or one level of proficiency from another, is called a _____ score.

a. cut-off

b. standard

c. dividing

d. minimum

4. Cross-referencing norms between WIAT and the Wechsler intelligence scales provides the basis for making _____ comparisons.

a. ability-achievement

b. ability-personality

c. motivation-self concept

d. achievement-effort

5. The main reason for some movement toward the use of briefer tests of intelligence seems to be ______.

a. the greater reliability of the briefer tests

b. the greater validity of the briefer tests

c. demands for increased efficiency in the health care field

d. interest in getting correlations with personality

6. What is the basic definition of a z-score? (M is the mean, S is the standard deviation and X is a score for the variable.)

a. (X - M)/SD

b. (M - X)/S

c. S/(X - M)

d. (X – M) + S

7. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 related mainly to what area of testing?

a. learning disabilities

b. educational achievement

c. personality, especially projectives

d. employment

8. In which of the methods of measuring attitudes does a panel of judges sort the items in terms of how favorably they express an attitude?

a. Likert

b. Thurstone

c. Guttman

d. Allport

9. Which is NOT one of the major tests in the ACT Assessment?

a. English

b. Reading

c. Nonverbal

d. Mathematics

10. Role-playing is an application of which behavioral assessment technique?

a. behavioral interviewing

b. cognitive-behavioral assessment

c. analogue behavioral assessment

d. self-monitoring

11. The text notes that the insanity plea in court cases is ______.

a. made often and is frequently successful

b. made often but is rarely successful

c. requires the person be committed to a mental institution

d. made infrequently but when made is usually successful

12. The practice of “subgroup norming” was adopted by some employers to reduce or eliminate claims of ______.

a. adverse impact

b. learning disabilities

c. sex harassment

d. age discrimination

13. Which type of content found in individually administered intelligence tests is usually NOT found in group administered mental ability tests?

a. vocabulary

b. short-term memory

c. arithmetic reasoning

d. verbal relations

14. Dr. N, a school psychologist, wishes to use a behavior rating scale for Tom, a 5th grade student. Who is likely to answer the questions on the scale?

a. Dr. N

b. Tom

c. Tom’s mom

d. Tom’s classmates

15. A principal concern of authors creating the “new-type” achievement tests was to make tests that were ______.

a. less expensive

b. machine-scorable

c. more reliable

d. less dependent on reading

16. Objective personality tests utilize the _____ item format to enable objective scoring.

a. Objective personality tests utilize the _____ item format to enable objective scoring.

b. objective-response

c. short-answer

d. selected-response

17. What does research show about the degree of use of consequential validity by test authors and publishers?

a. It is basically ignored.

b. It is used with achievement tests but not with other tests.

c. It is used with all types of tests except achievement tests.

d. It is widely used with all types of tests.

18. Each of the following projective tests can be classified as human figure drawings EXCEPT:

a. House-Tree-Person Test (HTP)

b. Draw-A-Person Test DAP)

c. Kinetic Family Drawing Test (KFD)

d. Draw-A-Figure Test (DAFT)

19. Which of these specialties within psychology has been most important in the development of the field of testing?

a. developmental psychology

b. social psychology

c. physiological psychology

d. clinical psychology

20. Which law emphasizes that parents have a right to see their child’s test results from school testing programs?

a. IDEA

b. Civil Rights Act

c. Americans with Disabilities Act

d. FERPA

21. In the RIASEC hexagon, the “R” stands for _____.

a. Realistic

b. Reliability

c. Rating

d. Relative

22. According to the textbook, the Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological Battery possesses _____ utility beyond confirming the presence of brain damage.

a. valuable

b. no

c. questionable

d. considerable

23. If you want a test that has the best discrimination at the lower end of the distribution of scores on the test, you should select items with ______.

a. high p-values

b. moderate p-values

c. low p-values

d. a mixture of very high and very low p-values

24. For most purposes the most important score coming from the ASVAB is the ______.

a. AFQT

b. SAI

c. IQ

d. Nonverbal

25. The Directory of Unpublished Experimental Mental Measures includes tests that typically appear in ______.

a. journal articles

b. publishers’ catalogs

c. Internet sources

d. newspaper reports

26. Which is NOT one of the special areas of concern for forensic application of tests identified in the textbook?

a. child custody

b. prediction of future violence

c. spousal abuse

d. white-collar crime

27. Which of the following is NOT a major advantage of selected-response items?

a. scoring can occur very rapidly

b. can complete more items in a given amount of time

c. scoring requires little judgment

d. opportunity to observe test-taking behavior

28. What correction is applied after determining the correlation between two halves of a test in order to express the reliability of a full-length test?

a. Kuder-Richardson

b. Cronbach’s

c. Spearman-Brown

d. Pearson’s

29. The process of weighing all the evidence and judging the relevance of existing studies to a specific anticipated use is called ______.

a. construct irrelevant variance

b. validity generalization

c. construct underrepresentation

d. criterion contamination

30. Which of these is a quick, self-report survey of a wide array of dysfunctional states?

a. SCID

b. SCL-90-R

c. MMPI-2

d. STAI

31. For predicting success in most school and job settings, in comparison with traditional intelligence tests, tests intended as culture-fair tests have ______.

a. higher validity

b. lower validity

c. about the same validity

d. higher validity at younger ages but lower validity at older ages

32. What test publishers refer to as “test user qualifications” would more accurately be called ______.

a. test purchaser qualifications

b. test publisher qualifications

c. test specifications

d. test technical standards

33. Two types of changes in standardized administration of a test for persons with disabilities are called accommodation and modification. For which are the norms for the test presumed to be applicable?

a. accommodation only

b. modification only

c. both accommodation and modification

d. neither accommodation nor modification

34. When applying location codes in the Comprehensive System for scoring the Rorschach, what symbol indicates reference to an unusual detail?

 a. X

b. D

c. Dx

d. Dd

35. Two common characteristics of comprehensive personality inventories are a _____ number of items and _____ time limit.

a. large; no

b. large; one hour

c. small; no

d. small; one hour

36. What generalization did the text offer about the degree of validity of the major career interest inventories?

a. Their validity, as defined by ultimate career choice, is very high.

b. Their validity, as defined by ultimate career choice, is respectable.

c. Their validity, as defined by ultimate career choice, is quite low.

 d. Their validity, as defined by ultimate career choice, has not been studied very much.

37. Which statement best describes the textbook’s conclusion about the influence of Piaget’s theory on practical measurement of intelligence?

 a. The theory has had enormous influence.

b. The theory has had little influence.

c. The theory once had great influence but no longer does.

d. The theory’s influence has decreased just recently.

38. The process of developing the list of knowledge and skills required by a job is often called ______.

 a. job specification

b. job content

c. job selection

d. job analysis

39. The General Occupational Theme (GOT) scores on the Strong are based on ______.

a. the RIASEC hexagon

b. Primary Mental Abilities

c. MMPI codes

d. Dictionary of Occupational Titles

40. The scales on the original MMPI were identified by _____.

a. numbers (e.g., 1, 2, 3, …)

b. letters (e.g., A, B, C, …)

c. names of clinical groups

d. names of the scales’ authors

41. Which is true about the similarity of subtests on successive editions of WAIS?

a. All of the subtests are the same.

b. Most of the subtests are the same.

c. A few of the subtests are the same.

d. None of the subtests are the same.

42. Which is a major difference between items in memory scales, such as the WMS, and intelligence scales, such as WAIS?

a. The memory scales use items that have no conceptual difficulty.

b. The memory scales use items that re untimed.

c. The memory scales use items that are entirely visual.

d. The memory scales use items that are entirely verbal.

43. Which of the following is a drawback to developmental norms?

a. They are applicable only to variables that show clear developmental patterns.

b. They have uncontrolled standard deviations.

c. none of the above

d. both a and b

44. The textbook suggests that use of the TAT may be declining due to the TAT’s ______.

a. lack of a systematic scoring system

b. greater cost than the Rorschach

c. lack of cultural sensitivity

d. sex bias

45. The concept of working memory fits under which type of theory of intelligence?

a. primary mental ability

b. uni-factor theory

c. developmental model

d. information processing

46. Thurstone is mainly identified with which theory of intelligence?

a. “g”

b. hierarchical model

c. developmental model

d. primary mental abilities

47. Which is the most widely referenced structured clinical interview?

a. SCID

b. SCL-90-R

c. STAI 9

d. MMPI

48. Using the techniques of analysis of variance, _____ attempts to apportion several sources of unreliability in a single study.

a. item response theory

b. classical test theory

c. generalizability theory

d. standard score theory

49. The text identifies a number of “preliminary design” issues to be considered when building a test? Which of these is NOT one of them?

a. length

b. number of scores

c. item format

d. defining the purpose

50. We interpret someone’s performance on a test in terms of how other people have performed on the test. Other people’s performance is the basis for the test’s ______.

a. reliability

b. norms

c. validity

d. items

51. The use of ______ is NOT a common approach to criterion-related validity.

 a. alternate forms of same test

b. some external criterion

c. group contrasts

d. some other valid test

52. What effect does managed care seem to be having on the use of projective techniques?

a. Managed care is leading to decrease in projective use.

b. Managed care is leading to increase in projective use.

c. Managed care is leading to increase in some projectives and decrease in other projectives.

d. It’s having no effect.  

53. Which phrase signals an ethical issue?

a. ought to do

b. must do

c. will do

d. already did

54. Which of these categories is NOT identified by the textbook as a broad category of achievement tests?

a. achievement test batteries

b. nonverbal test batteries c

. psychoeducational batteries

d. teacher-made tests

55. In the three-parameter IRT model, the lower asymptote of the ICC is often called the:

a. slope

b. theta

c. guessing parameter

d. difficulty parameter

56. In information processing models of intelligence, functions such as monitoring and evaluating are called _______ functions.  

a. mental b. executive c. service d. cerebellar

57. The usual method for using several tests to predict status on a criterion is ______.

a. factor analysis b. partial correlation c. multiple correlation d. coefficient alpha

58. The most general definition of a learning disability is a significant discrepancy between a child’s ______.

a. level of intelligence and achievement

b. verbal and recognition memory

c. level of intelligence and memory

d. memory and level of achievement

59. The inability to sound out words and making substitutions of visually similar words when reading are characteristics of ______.

a. dysphonetic dyslexia

b. dyseidetic dyslexia

c. dyscalculia

d. dysphoria

60. Which is NOT one of the areas identified as an influence of computers on testing?

a. score reporting

b. test administration

c. cost of testing

d. statistical processing

61. What is the time limit for the Wonderlic Personnel Test?

a. 3 minutes

b. 12 minutes

c. 60 minutes

d. 3 hours

62. Validity information for what the text calls “brief tests of intelligence” tends to concentrate on ______.

a. factor analysis

b. content validity

c. showing a high correlation with lengthier measures of intelligence

d. showing a low correlation with lengthier measures of intelligence

63. The 25th percentile indicates the point in a distribution _____ which 25% of the cases fall.

a. below

b. above

c. between

d. at

64. This reliability coefficient is obtained by administering the same test to the same individuals on two serparate occasions:

a. inter-scorer reliability

b. alternate form reliability

c. test-retest reliability

d. none of the above

65. The two principal uses for projective techniques include _____ and _____.

a. research; assessment of response style

b. research; supporting psychoanalytic personality theory

c. assessment of group dynamics; research

d. assessment of individual cases; research

66. From an entry in TIP you should be able to determine all of the following EXCEPT:

a. the test’s publisher

b. the test’s author

c. the test’s year of publication

d. the test’s degree of reliability

67. A person’s test score with all sources of unreliability removed is called the _____ score.

a. observed

b. true

c. error

d. actual

68. The NEO PI purports to measure what have been called the _____ personality dimensions.

a. Big Ten

 b. Three Factor

c. Four Factor

d. Big Five

69. Standard scores on the Wechsler Individual Achievement Test have a mean of _____ and a standard deviation of _____.

a. 115; 10 b. 115; 15 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 15

70. What was the main approach to personality test development used in construction of the original MMPI?

a. content b. criterion-keying c. factor analysis d. theory-driven

71. The WISC was designed to be a(n) __________ of the WAIS.

a. upward extension

b. nonverbal form

c. downward extension

d. alternate form

72. Individual intelligence tests typically cover a wide range of abilities but they involve using only some items with each examinee. The items to be used in a particular case are usually selected by ______.

a. tables of random numbers

b. computer-adaptive models

c. use of start- and stop-rules

d. examinee interests

73. What is the technical term for identical twins?

a. monozygotic

b. dizygotic

c. embryonic

d. intrauterine 7

74. Deficits in the ability to express or comprehend written or spoken communication as a result of brain injury are called ___.

a. lesions

b. infractions

c. apraxias

d. aphasias

75. In the Atkins v. Virginia case, what unusual source of information was cited by the Supreme Court as defining a national consensus?

a. legal briefs from all 50 states

b. meta-analysis of law school journal articles

c. a summary of statements by law school deans

d. public opinion polls

76. Educational and Psychological Measurement, Psychometrika, and Personnel Psychology are all examples of what type of source of information about tests?

a. textbooks on testing

b. electronic listings

c. journals

d. comprehensive listings

77. Projective techniques typically use what type of response format?

a. constructed-response

b. selected-response

c. written

d. oral

78. Someone tells you that the raw scores on a test have been converted to a score system with M = 50 and SD = 10. This sounds like a set of ________.

a. z-scores

b. deviations

c. correlations

d. standard scores

79. College achievement batteries are typically used _____ elementary and secondary school achievement batteries.

a. slightly more frequently than

b. approximately the same as

c. less frequently than

d. much more frequently than

80. Neuropsychological tests are designed primarily to yield information about functioning of the ______.

a. peripheral nervous system

b. central nervous system

c. physiological systems

d. midbrain

81. Which of the following types of derived scores are NOT provided by the Stanford Achievement Test? 81.

a. stanines

 b. F-scores

c. grade equivalents

d. percentile rank

82. The MMPI-2 Restructured Form (RF) provides three higher-order scales. These scales are based on _____.

a. criterion-keying the items based on new clinical groups

b. combinations of the “critical items”

c. a more sophisticated T-score system

d. factor analysis of the clinical scales

83. The key terms in the classical test theory approach are all of the following EXCEPT:

 a. reliability score (R)

b. observed score (O)

c. true score (T)

d. error score (E)

84. What is the popular name for a freely available pool of personality items oriented toward the Big Five personality dimensions?

a. FivePool

b. OCEAN

c. NetPool

d. IPIP

85. A considerable variety of studies show that the average IQ of entire nations is increasing. This phenomenon is popularly named the ________ effect.

a. Spearman

b. Thurstone

c. Hogan

d. Flynn

86. Which method of measuring attitudes does the text identify as the most widely used method?

a. Thurstone method

b. Likert method

c. Guttman method

d. Allport method

87. What does the concept of “replicability” deal with in Guttman scaling?

a. consistency of patterns of responses

b. content validity of the overall scale

c. factor analysis of the group’s responses

d. face validity of the items

88. The MMPI has been utilized to detect malingering, or _____.

a. lying

b. persistent symptoms

c. deliberate faking

d. dissimulation

89. Which of the following should NOT be used to determine the quality of a particular test?

a. other test users

b. publisher’s catalogs

c. test reviews

d. book about the test

90. Which word best describes the textbook’s conclusion about the validity of human figure drawings?

a. respectable

b. unencouraging

c. superior

d. uninvestigated

91. What is the effect of “constant errors” on test reliability?

a. They increase reliability.

b. They decrease reliability.

c. They have no effect on reliability.

d. They increase reliability for low scores but decrease it for high scores.

92. One of the sources of information about tests is “books about single tests.” What is the major advantage of this source of information?

a. easy electronic access

b. in-depth coverage of a single test

c. several parallel reviews of a test

d. up-to-date information about scoring services for the test

93. What important property sets the ratio scale apart from the interval scale?

 a. The ratio scale has a true zero point.

b. The ratio scale has accurate rankings.

c. The ratio scale has equally spaced intervals.

d. The ratio scale has quantification.

94. The content method for developing objective personality tests develops items based on ______.

a. straightforward understanding of the construct to be measured

b. empirical verification of the validity of potential items

c. their ability to discriminate between two well-defined groups of examinees

d. their identification of dimensions underlying numerous observations

95. Patients with _____ do not attend to objects in their neglected field of vision.

a. visual neglect

b. spatial insufficiency

c. spatial neglect d

. visual insufficiency

96. The Raven’s test uses what type of item?

a. matrix-type

b. essay

c. free-response

d. grid-in type

97. The most immediate result obtained from a test is the ______.

a. raw score

b. percentile

c. z-score

d. standard score

98. Which is NOT one of the major trends the textbook identifies for the period “And Now: 2000-Present”?

a. a great increase in the number of tests

b. influence of managed care

c. online administration and reporting of tests

d. changing definitions of what a test is

99. Which is true about the relative number of tests covered by MMY and Test Critiques?

a. MMY covers more

b. MMY covers fewer

c. They cover an equal number

d. MMY used to cover more but now covers fewer

100. Which of the following is the first phase in item analysis?

a. item selection

b. statistical analysis

c. item discrimination

d. item tryout